Answer:
Yes, the quotient will be the same
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
If the numerator and denominator of a fraction be both multiplied by the same number, the quotient will not be altered
Because is the same that you multiply the fraction by 1, and remember that when you multiply by 1, you always get your original number
[tex]\frac{a}{b}(\frac{100}{100})=\frac{a}{b}(1)=\frac{a}{b}[/tex]
therefore
Yes, the quotient will be the same
